fyi: it’s “drugs”

  • Setiyeti93@lemmy.ca
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    17 hours ago

    It’s so strange to me that the argument of she was drunk and / or on drugs so strange.

    These are reasons that she could never consent. Therefore any sexual act with her would be assault

    It feels so weird to me that they think this is some kind of “gotcha”.

    • deltapi@lemmy.world
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      8 hours ago

      Does it make more sense if it’s presented as

      If a woman goes to a party, she won’t be raped unless there’s a rapist there.
      This holds true even if she’s on drugs and naked.

      Because the drugs aren’t the point

    • Lithops@lemmy.world
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      10 hours ago

      Its the typical shaming. The attempt to blame the victim. Always so wrong but seems for a lot of people legit.

    • Shayeta@feddit.org
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      13 hours ago

      The more interesting one is what if both are under the influence of alcohol/drugs?

      • captainlezbian@lemmy.world
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        10 hours ago

        It really depends on the situation. Two people of similar intoxication levels can consent. But at the same time when with an intoxicated person you need to be making certain they’re moving forward with you and consenting.

        At least that’s my perspective as someone who will get involved with strangers while drinking at bars.

        When someone’s blacked out or unable to enthusiastically consent (ie advance the acts of their own volition without being pressured or otherwise coerced) then they fundamentally can’t consent

          • ExLisper@lemmy.curiana.net
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            10 hours ago

            It’s hard for two unconscious people to have sex. One of them has to be conscious enough to be able to move. Even if they are drunk they are still responsible for having sex with unconscious person.

            It may depend on jurisdiction but usually it’s illegal to have sex with someone unable to consent. I think that if they are drunk but are still consenting (verbally or non-verbally) it’s not considered rape.